CHEM 1110 Exam 3 Summer 06 NAME _____________________________

Identify the letter of the choice that best h = 6.626 x 10-34 J-s

completes the statement or answers the question. c = 3.00 x 108 m/s R = 1.097 x 107 m-1

 

____ 1. What is the wavelength of a photon of red light (in nm) whose frequency is 4.64 x 1014 Hz?

a.

646 nm

c.

155 nm

e.

none of these

b.

1.55 x 106 nm

d.

464 nm

 

 

 

 

____ 2. When an electron in a 2p orbital of a lithium atom makes a transition to the 2s orbital, a photon of approximate wavelength 671.2 nm is emitted. The energy difference between these 2p and 2s orbitals is

a.

2.960 x 1028 J

c.

2.960 x 1017 J

e.

none of these

b.

2.960 x 1019 J

d.

1.333 x 1031 J

 

 

 

 

____ 3. In Bohr's atomic theory, when an electron moves from one energy level to another energy level more distant from the nucleus

a.

energy is emitted.

c.

no change in energy occurs.

e.

none of these

b.

energy is absorbed.

d.

light is emitted.

 

 

 

 

____ 4. Which of the following statements is false?

a.

An orbital can accommodate at most two electrons.

b.

The electron density of an orbital is proportional to the square of the wave function.

c.

The spin quantum number of an electron must be either +1/2 or 1/2.

d.

A 2p orbital has a higher electron density near the nucleus than a 2s.

e.

In the usual order of filling, the 6s orbital is filled before the 4f orbital.

 

 

 

____ 5. How many electrons in an atom can have the quantum numbers n = 4, l = 2?

a.

14

b.

12

c.

5

d.

10

e.

6

 

 

 

____ 6. The electron configuration of indium is

a.

1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p15d10

b.

1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24d104p1

c.

1s23s22p63s23p64s24p64d105s25d105p1

d.

1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d105s25p1

e.

none of these

 

 

 

____ 7. An element with the electron configuration [Xe]4f145d76s2 would belong to which class on the periodic table?

a.

transition elements

c.

halogens

e.

none of the above

b.

alkaline earth elements

d.

rare earth elements

 

 

 

 

____ 8. An atom of fluorine contains 9 electrons. How many of these electrons are in s orbitals?

a.

2

b.

4

c.

6

d.

8

e.

none

 

 

 

____ 9. How many unpaired electrons are there in an atom of sulfur in its ground state?

a.

0

b.

1

c.

2

d.

3

e.

4

 

 

 

____ 10. The first ionization energy of Mg is 735 kJ/mol. The second ionization energy is

a.

735 kJ/mol

d.

Not enough information to answer.

b.

less than 735 kJ/mol

e.

none of these

c.

greater than 735 kJ/mol

 

 

 

 

____ 11. Which of the following atoms has the largest ionization energy?

a.

O

b.

Li

c.

N

d.

Be

e.

K

 

 

 

____ 12. Rutherford's experiment was important because it showed that:

a.

radioactive elements give off alpha particles.

b.

gold foil can be made to be only a few atoms thick.

c.

a zinc sulfide screen scintillates when struck by a charged particle.

d.

the mass of the atom is uniformly distributed throughout the atom.

e.

an atom is mostly empty space.

 

 

 

____ 13. Place the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum in order from longest to shortest wavelength.

a.

radio > microwave > visible > ultraviolet > gamma ray

b.

gamma ray > microwave > radio > visible > ultraviolet

c.

ultraviolet > visible > microwave > radio > gamma ray

d.

microwave > radio > ultraviolet > visible > gamma ray

e.

visible > gamma ray > radio > ultraviolet > microwave

 

 


____ 14. Which of the following electronic transitions would emit the lowest energy photon?

a.

n = 1 to n = 2

c.

n = 3 to n = 2

e.

n = 5 to n = 4

b.

n = 2 to n = 1

d.

n = 5 to n = 2

 

 

 

 

____ 15. All of the following sets of quantum numbers are allowed EXCEPT

a.

n = 1, = 0, m = 1, ms = - 1/2.

d.

n = 4, = 3, m = -1, ms = - 1/2.

b.

n = 2, = 1, m = 0, ms = + 1/2.

e.

n = 6, = 3, m = -3, ms = + 1/2.

c.

n = 3, = 1, m = -1, ms = - 1/2.

 

 

 

 

____ 16. Which quantum number designates the shape of an atomic orbital?

a.

n

b.

c.

m

d.

ms

e.

ms and m

 

 

 

____ 17. What is the correct orbital diagram for phosphorus?

 

1s

2s

2p

3s

3p

 

a.

()    ()    ( )( )( )

b.

()    ()    ()( )( )

c.

()    ()    ()()()    ()    ()( )( )

d.

()    ()    ()()()    ()    ( )( )( )

e.

()    ()    ()()()    ( )    ()( )( )

 

 

 

____ 18. Place the following atoms in order of increasing size: Al, Cl, Mg, O, and P.

a.

Cl < O < P < Al < Mg

c.

O < Cl < P < Al < Mg

e.

none of the above

b.

Cl < P < Al < Mg < O

d.

O < Mg < Al < P < Cl

 

 

 

 

____ 19. Place the following ions in order of increasing radius: Al3+, F-, Mg2+, and N3-.

a.

F- < Mg2+ < N3- < Al3+

c.

F- < N3- < Mg2+ < Al3+

e.

Al3+ < Mg2+ < F- < N3-

b.

F- < N3- < Al3+ < Mg2+

d.

N3- < F- < Mg2+ < Al3+

 

 

 

 

____ 20. J.J. Thomson determined that electrons are small, negatively charged particles by

a.

bombarding gold foil with alpha particles.

b.

exposing photographic plates to radioactive uranium.

c.

deflecting cathode rays with electric and magnetic fields.

d.

converting cathode rays to electron particles using a fluorescent screen.

e.

decomposing neutrons into protons and electrons.

 

 

 

____ 21. Which nuclear symbol describes oxygen-15, a radioactive element used in positron emission tomography?

a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

____ 22. A main group element with the valence electron configuration 4s24p4 is in periodic group ______ and it forms a monatomic ion with a charge of ______.

a.

VIa; +2

b.

IVa; +2

c.

IVa; -2

d.

VIa; -2

e.

VIa; +2

 

 

 

____ 23. The general electron configuration for the element group that would have the largest negative value for the electron affinity for its atoms is __________?

a.

ns2np6

b.

ns2np4

c.

ns1

d.

ns2np5

e.

ns2np3

 

 

 

____ 24. Which one of the following pairs contains isoelectronic species?

a.

Na, Na+

b.

S, Se

c.

S2-, Se2-

d.

F2, Cl2

e.

Na+, O2-

 

 

 

____ 25. A property that measures the ability of an atom to attract electrons in a chemical bond is

a.

binding energy.

c.

electron affinity.

e.

electronegativity.

b.

mass defect.

d.

ionization energy.

 

 

 

 

____ 26. Which one of the following reactions does not produce H2(g)?

a.

electrolysis of H2O

d.

iron with steam

b.

zinc with HCl(aq)

e.

steam cracking of hydrocarbons

c.

combustion of ethane, C2H6

 

 

 

 

____ 27. Which one of the following hydrides is not acidic?

a.

HF

b.

HCl

c.

H2S

d.

CaH2

e.

H2Se

 

 

 

____ 28. Which response contains all the basic oxides listed below and no others?

 

 

I. NO II. CaO III. Li2O IV. SO 2 V. P4O10

 

a.

I and IV

b.

II and IV

c.

I, III, and IV

d.

IV and V

e.

II and III

 


CHEM 1110 Exam 3

Answer Section

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

1. ANS: A

 

2. ANS: B

 

3. ANS: B

 

4. ANS: D

 

5. ANS: D

 

6. ANS: D

 

7. ANS: A

 

8. ANS: B

 

9. ANS: C

 

10. ANS: C

 

11. ANS: C

 

12. ANS: E

 

13. ANS: A

 

14. ANS: E

 

15. ANS: A

 

16. ANS: B

 

17. ANS: D

 

18. ANS: C

 

19. ANS: E

 

20. ANS: C

 

21. ANS: C

 

22. ANS: D

 

 

23. ANS: D

 

24. ANS: E

 

25. ANS: E

 

26. ANS: C

 

27. ANS: D

 

28. ANS: E